carnifex
Posts: 1295
Joined: 7/1/2002 From: Latitude 40° 48' 43N Longtitude 74° 7' 29W Status: offline
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I'm going to have to disagree. Let me give you an example: First turn of the 1805 game, Britain surrenders to France which chooses no clauses and therefore defaults to have Britain pay 275% income for 3 turns. Sept 1805 - Britain has a net income of 255, treasury at 900. Oct 1805 - British treasury at 863 (900 + income - upkeep). First payment occurs at end of turn. 275% of 255 should be 700, but British treasury drained to 0 instead. Defaults on treaty, Glory - 19. Nov 1805 - Second month of 275% payment. Britain unable to pay upkeep - troops deplete. Default on treaty, Glory -19. Dec 1805 - Third month of 275% payment. Britain unable to pay upkeep - troops deplete. Default on treaty, Glory -20. Jan 1806 - No more treaty but troops deplete because money is still 0. So, Britain loses 40 Glory for the surrender, and then another 60 for defaulting, treasury drained dry, and troops are depleted for at least 3 turns. The main reason this is an exploit is that if France were to choose the debt/reparation clauses, they would still be able to take all of England's money, but the Glory damage would be minimal, maybe 7 points one time occurance. EDIT: Checked out some more surrender situations - maximum Glory damage France can inflict upon Britain if they choose the most hurtful clauses is 20. So 20 if they choose clauses and 60 if they don't. Either way they get all the money.
< Message edited by carnifex -- 8/4/2005 5:08:52 PM >
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