Peltonx
Posts: 7250
Joined: 4/9/2006 Status: offline
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quote:
ORIGINAL: Marquo What I do not understand: 1st Case: Modified CVs 307/84, odds 3.6:1, and no air units from either side participate 2nd Case: Modified CVs 1115/121, odds 9.2:1, robust air support And...losses in both case about equal? Why do 6 infantry divisions attacking at lower odds without air support inflict about equal damage to 2 Tank Corps/1 Cavalry Corps as 6 panzer/PzG divisions and 2 infantry divisions at much greater odds? I am not suggesting that anything is broken, rather I would like to know why things work this way: Why no air support in the first case? Why do higher odds/modified CVs not inflict significantyl greater damage at lower loss? However, this does debunk claims that the attacking is not wise - it is very wise as the routed units are unavailable next turn, the moral equilibrium is favorably shifted and the loss ratio is favorable. Final note: I replayed this from my last move with TD after I sent him the finished move; for the record I want to assure him that I do not reload saves when I play - this was an experiment to explore the notions raised in this thread. Thanks, Marquo Thats because if you watch the rounds, before the retreat The loses are like 1700 German and 1700 russian, the retreat loses causes the 2500 extra loses NOTHING to do with tanks/guns/planes or men. So you can have 1000000000000 or 500 CV the result will be about the same. Its really not all that random, the retreat losses that is. The round by round loses can be random.
< Message edited by Pelton -- 12/30/2012 3:50:51 PM >
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